| 1 | Q1. An advertisement for cooking food in a pressure cooker points out that this saves fuel and is economical. What message characteristic is being highlighted in the advertisement? 1. Emotional 2. Rational 3. Familial 4. Personal | The correct answer is Option 2. Rational A rational message appeals to logic, reasoning, and factual benefits rather than emotions. In this advertisement, the focus is on saving fuel and being economical, which are practical and measurable advantages. The ad uses facts and logic to convince consumers that using a pressure cooker is more efficient and cost-saving. |
| 2 | Q2. Ananya is pursuing the science stream and aims to be a doctor some day. However, Ananya strums her guitar and sings along whenever she is free. Although she is not a great singer, her spirits lift when she sings along. What is this attribute called? 1. Aptitude 2. Personality 3. Interest 4. Intelligence | The correct answer is Option 3. Interest Interest refers to the activities or subjects that a person enjoys doing in their free time, regardless of skill or expertise. In this case, Ananya enjoys singing and playing the guitar even though she may not be very good at it. This shows her liking or preference for that activity, which defines interest, not aptitude or intelligence. |
| 3 | Q3. The ability to monitor one's own and other's emotions, to discriminate among them and to use the information to guide one's thinking and actions is called: 1. Social intelligence 2. Emotional intelligence 3. Interpersonal intelligence 4. Abstract intelligence
Previous Years' Paper Common University Entrance Test for UG Programmes Entrance Exam, 2025 CUET-UG - Psychology (After the list of questions, the solution will Start.) | The correct answer is Option 2. Emotional intelligence Emotional intelligence (EI) is the ability to recognize, understand, and manage one’s own emotions, as well as to recognize and influence the emotions of others. It includes: • Self-awareness: Knowing one’s own emotions. • Self-regulation: Managing emotions effectively. • Empathy: Understanding others’ feelings. • Social skills: Using emotional understanding to guide behavior and relationships. |
| 4 | Q4. Kohs Block Design Test contains a number of wooden blocks to be arranged in a design within a given time period. This test is an example of: 1. Performance test 2. Non-verbal test 3. Verbal test 4. Aptitude test | The correct answer is Option 1. Performance test The Kohs Block Design Test measures a person’s ability to analyze and reproduce visual patterns using wooden blocks. It does not require reading, writing, or verbal responses - instead, it depends on manipulating physical objects. Hence, it is a Performance Test, as it assesses intelligence or problem- solving ability through action-based tasks rather than spoken or written language. |
| 5 | Q5. Arshiya has an I.Q. of 135. She is an all-rounder. She not only scores at the top of her class but is also an international chess player and a remarkable beat player as well. Arshiya can be classified as: 1. Gifted 2. Smart 3. Creative 4. Intelligent | The correct answer is Option 1. Gifted A person is considered gifted when they have an IQ above 130 and show exceptional ability or talent in multiple areas such as academics, music, arts, or sports. In this case, Arshiya’s IQ is 135, which is well above average, and she excels in academics, chess, and music. This combination of high intelligence and outstanding performance makes her a gifted individual. |
| 6 | Q6. Identify the facets of intelligence in the Indian tradition from the following options: (A) Cognitive capacity (B) Social competence (C) Emotional competence (D) Individualistic orientation (E) Entrepreneurial competence Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A), (B), (C) and (D) only 2. (B), (C), (D) and (E) only 3. (A), (B), (C) and (E) Only 4. (A), (C), (D) and (E) only | The correct answer is Option 3. (A), (B), (C) and (E) only In the Indian tradition, intelligence is viewed as a holistic concept that integrates not only thinking ability but also emotional, social, and practical aspects. The major facets of intelligence in this view are: • (A) Cognitive capacity: The ability to think, reason, and understand. • (B) Social competence: The ability to build and maintain harmonious relationships. • (C) Emotional competence: Understanding and managing one’s emotions effectively. • (E) Entrepreneurial competence: Practical intelligence and problem- solving skills in real-life situations. However, (D) Individualistic orientation does not align with the Indian view, which emphasizes collective well-being and interdependence, not individualism. |
| 7 | Q7. Match List-I with List-II List-I List-II
(A) Poets and writers (I) Intrapersonal (B) Scientists (II) Bodily-Kinaesthetic (C) Philosophers and spiritual leaders (III) Logical-Mathematical (D) Athletes, dancers and gymnasts (IV) Linguistic
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I) 2. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II) 3. (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I) 4. (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II) | The correct answer is Option 4. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) This question is based on Howard Gardner’s Theory of Multiple Intelligences, which identifies different types of intelligence people use to perform various activities effectively. Here’s the correct matching: • (A) Poets and writers → (IV) Linguistic intelligence They use language creatively and effectively for expression. • (B) Scientists → (III) Logical-Mathematical intelligence They use reasoning, logic, and analysis to solve problems. • (C) Philosophers and spiritual leaders → (I) Intrapersonal intelligence They have deep self-awareness and understanding of inner thoughts and feelings. • (D) Athletes, dancers, and gymnasts → (II) Bodily-Kinaesthetic intelligence They use body coordination and movement skillfully. |
| 8 | Q8. An in-depth study of the individual in terms of his/her psychological attributes, psychological history in the context of his/her psycho-social and physical environment is known as: 1. Interview 2. Self-report 3. Psychological test 4. Case-study | The correct answer is Option 4. Case-study A case study is a detailed and in-depth investigation of an individual to understand their psychological attributes, life history, and behavior in the context of their social and physical environment. • It provides a holistic understanding of a person’s life experiences, emotional patterns, and personality. • It is commonly used in clinical psychology, counseling, and education to study unique or complex cases in depth. • Example: Studying a patient’s background, behavior, and recovery process to understand the causes of a mental disorder. |
| 9 | Q9. Which of the following can be categorised under the verbal test? (A) Stanford-Binet Test (B) Alexander's Passalong Test (C) Raven's Progressive Matrices (D) Draw-a-Man Test Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A) only 2. (C) only 3. (B) and (D) only 4. (C) and (D) only | The correct answer is Option 1. (A) only A verbal test measures intelligence or ability through the use of language- based questions, such as vocabulary, comprehension, and reasoning. Let’s analyze each option: • (A) Stanford–Binet Test → Verbal Test This test measures verbal reasoning, comprehension, and language skills along with other cognitive abilities. • (B) Alexander’s Passalong Test → Performance Test ❌ It involves manipulating blocks to complete patterns, which doesn’t require verbal responses. • (C) Raven’s Progressive Matrices → Non-verbal Test ❌ It assesses abstract reasoning and pattern recognition, independent of language. • (D) Draw-a-Man Test → Performance Test ❌ It requires drawing, not verbal communication, so it’s non-verbal. |
| 10 | Q10. Arrange the psychosexual stages of personality development in the correct sequence: (A) Anal (B) Oral (C) Genital (D) Latency (E) Phallic Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A), (B), (E), (D), (C) 2. (B), (A), (E), (D), (C) 3. (B), (A), (C), (D), (E) 4. (A), (B), (D), (E), (C) | The correct answer is Option 2. (B), (A), (E), (D), (C) According to Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual theory of personality development, the stages occur in a fixed sequence based on the focus of libido (sexual energy) on different erogenous zones: 1. Oral stage (B): Birth to 1 year — pleasure centers on the mouth (sucking, eating). 2. Anal stage (A): 1 to 3 years — focus on controlling bowel and bladder movements. 3. Phallic stage (E): 3 to 6 years — focus on genitals; development of Oedipus/Electra complex. 4. Latency stage (D): 6 years to puberty — sexual impulses are repressed; focus on learning and social skills. 5. Genital stage (C): Puberty onward — mature sexual interests re- emerge. Thus, the correct sequence is: Oral → Anal → Phallic → Latency → Genital |
| 11 | Q11. Source traits are: (A) stable (B) result of the interaction between surface traits (C) considered as the building blocks of personality (D) quite generalised dispositions Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A) and (B) only 2. (B) and (C) only 3. (A) and (C) only 4. (A) and (D) only | The correct answer is Option 4. (A) and (D) only The concept of Source Traits was proposed by Raymond Cattell in his Trait Theory of Personality. • Source traits are the basic, underlying, and stable characteristics that shape a person’s behavior. • They are broad and general dispositions that influence many surface traits (observable behaviors). • In contrast, surface traits are the visible and less stable expressions of personality. Therefore: • (A) Stable — Source traits are enduring over time. • (D) Quite generalised dispositions — They reflect fundamental patterns of personality. • (B) ❌ Source traits are not a result of surface traits; instead, surface traits arise from them. • (C) ❌ “Building blocks” refers more to surface traits, not source traits. |
| 12 | Q12. Match List-I with List-II List-I List-II (A) Interactional approach (I) Understands personality in relation to the features of ecological and cultural environment
(B) Type approach (II) Focuses on identifying primary characteristics of the people (C) Trait approach (III) Situational characteristics play an important role in determining our behaviour (D) Cultural approach (IV) Examines certain broad patterns in the observed behavioural characteristics of the individuals Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III) 2. (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III) 3. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) 4. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I) | The correct answer is Option 3. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I) • (A) Interactional approach → (IV) Examines certain broad patterns in behaviour: This approach suggests that personality is shaped by the interaction between personal traits and situational factors. • (B) Type approach → (II) Focuses on identifying primary characteristics of people: It classifies individuals into distinct types (e.g., introvert–extrovert, Type A–Type B). • (C) Trait approach → (I) Understands personality in relation to ecological and cultural environment: The trait approach emphasizes stable characteristics that describe how a person behaves consistently across situations. • (D) Cultural approach → (III) Situational characteristics play an important role in determining behaviour: This approach explains personality in the context of cultural and environmental influences that shape individual traits and actions. Hence, the correct matching is: (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) |
| 13 | Q13. Which technique of personality assessment puts individuals into certain categories in terms of their behavioural qualities? 1. Interview 2. Behavioural rating 3. Nomination 4. Situational test | The correct answer is Option 2. Behavioural rating A behavioural rating technique involves evaluating individuals on specific behavioural traits and then categorizing them into defined groups based on their observable qualities - such as sociability, responsibility, or leadership. It helps in systematically assessing personality by using rating scales or checklists completed by observers like teachers, peers, or supervisors. Unlike interviews or situational tests, which focus on qualitative understanding or performance in specific contexts, behavioural rating directly classifies people according to their behavioural characteristics. |
| 14 | Q14. According to Jung's analytical psychology, 'God' and 'Mother earth' are examples of: 1. Superiority complex 2. Superego 3. Archetypes 4. Basic anxiety | The correct answer is Option 3. Archetypes According to Carl Jung’s Analytical Psychology, archetypes are universal, inherited symbols or images stored in the collective unconscious that shape human thoughts and behaviours. Examples include the mother, Hero, God, and Shadow archetypes. ‘God’ and ‘Mother Earth’ represent powerful symbolic patterns that appear across cultures and religions, reflecting humanity’s shared psychological heritage — hence, they are archetypes, not personal experiences or complexes. |
| 15 | Q15. Tendency of the subject to agree with items irrespective of their content is called: 1. Acquiescence 2. Halo effect
3. Social desirability 4. Extreme response bias | The correct answer is Option 1. Acquiescence Acquiescence refers to a response bias in which a person tends to agree with statements or items on a questionnaire regardless of their actual content. It reflects a general tendency to say “yes” or show approval rather than providing thoughtful, content-based responses. This differs from: • Halo effect: judging a person’s overall impression based on one positive trait. • Social desirability: answering in a way that makes one look good socially. • Extreme response bias: consistently choosing only the extreme ends of rating scales. |
| 16 | Q16. As an actor, the self actively engages in the process of knowing itself. This status of self is called ___________________ . 1. self as subject 2. self as object
3. ideal self 4. real self | The correct answer is Option 1. self as subject When the self is viewed as an active knower or experiencer, engaging in understanding or reflecting upon itself, it is referred to as the self as subject. This aspect of self represents the “I” — the one who thinks, feels, and acts. In contrast, self as object refers to the “me”, the part of the self that is being observed or known. Thus, when the self actively participates in the process of knowing itself, it is functioning as the subject. |
| 17 | Q17. The client-centered therapy developed by Carl Rogers is based on: 1. Psychodynamic approach 2. Cognitive approach 3. Behavioural approach 4. Humanistic approach | The correct answer is Option 4. Humanistic approach Client-centered therapy, developed by Carl Rogers, is grounded in the Humanistic approach to psychology. This approach emphasizes the inherent goodness and potential of individuals, focusing on self-growth, self- awareness, and personal responsibility. Rogers believed that people can achieve psychological well-being when provided with a supportive environment characterized by empathy, unconditional positive regard, and genuineness. Unlike the psychodynamic or behavioural approaches, the humanistic approach views the client as the center of the healing process, capable of directing their own growth. |
| 18 | Q18. Who is NOT associated with the trait approach of personality? 1. Costa and McCrae 2. Allport 3. Sheldon 4. Cattell | The correct answer is Option 3. Sheldon William Sheldon is known for his somatotype theory, which links body types (endomorphic, mesomorphic, ectomorphic) with personality traits. His approach is biological and constitutional, not part of the trait approach. In contrast: • Allport identified cardinal, central, and secondary traits. • Cattell proposed 16 Personality Factors (16PF). • Costa and McCrae developed the Five-Factor Model (Big Five). Hence, Sheldon is not associated with the trait approach of personality. |
| 19 | Q19. Who developed the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)? 1. Morgan and Murray 2. Binet and Simon 3. Miller and Dollard 4. Costa and McCrae | The correct answer is Option 1. Morgan and Murray The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) was developed by Henry A. Murray and Christiana D. Morgan. It is a projective personality test designed to uncover a person’s underlying motives, emotions, and conflicts. In the TAT, individuals are shown ambiguous pictures and asked to create stories about them. The way they interpret these images reveals aspects of their personality, needs, and drives, based on the themes and emotions they project onto the pictures. |
| 20 | Q20. What is the full form of PTSD? 1. Post Traumatic Stress Disorder 2. Pre Traumatic Stress Disorder
3. Post Traumatic Situational Disorder 4. Pre Traumatic Situational Disorder | The correct answer is Option 1. Post Traumatic Stress Disorder PTSD (Post Traumatic Stress Disorder) is a psychological condition that develops after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic or life-threatening event, such as an accident, natural disaster, or violence. People with PTSD may experience flashbacks, nightmares, severe anxiety, and intrusive thoughts related to the event. The term “post-traumatic” means that the symptoms occur after the trauma has taken place. |
| 21 | Q21. Tinku has been undergoing Rational Emotive Therapy (RET). Identify the correct sequence of the therapeutic process: (A) Negative emotions and behaviours as consequences of the antecedent event are identified and noted (B) Client's irrational beliefs which are distorting present reality are identified (C) Antecedent events which caused psychological distress are noted (D) The irrational beliefs are refuted by the therapist through non-directive questioning (E) Eventually, the client is able to replace the irrational beliefs with the rational ones. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (B), (D), (A), (C), (E) 2. (C), (B), (A), (D), (E) 3. (D), (B), (A). (C), (E) 4. (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) | The correct answer is Option 2. (C), (B), (A), (D), (E) Rational Emotive Therapy (RET), developed by Albert Ellis, follows the A–B– C–D–E model of understanding and correcting irrational beliefs: • A (Activating event): Identify the antecedent event that caused distress → (C) • B (Belief): Recognize the irrational beliefs related to that event → (B) • C (Consequence): Note the negative emotions and behaviours resulting from those beliefs → (A) • D (Disputation): Challenge and refute the irrational beliefs through questioning → (D) • E (Effect): Replace the irrational beliefs with rational, healthy thoughts → (E) Thus, the correct therapeutic sequence is: (C) → (B) → (A) → (D) → (E) |
| 22 | Q22. Who used the concept of 'balance' in his theory of attitude change? 1. Leon Festinger 2. Fritz Heider 3. Richard LaPiere 4. Gordon Allport | The correct answer is Option 2. Fritz Heider Fritz Heider proposed the Balance Theory of attitude change, which explains how people strive to maintain psychological consistency in their relationships and beliefs. According to this theory, individuals prefer a balanced state where their attitudes toward people and objects are harmonious. When imbalance occurs - for example, when you like someone who dislikes what you like - it creates psychological tension, motivating you to change your attitude to restore balance. This concept is part of Heider’s P-O-X model (Person–Other–Object), illustrating how attitudes adjust to maintain mental harmony. |
| 23 | Q23. Which one of the following is NOT a significant property of attitude? 1. Valence 2. Centrality 3. Extremeness 4. Quantity | The correct answer is Option 4. Quantity The significant properties of attitude are: • Valence: Whether the attitude is positive or negative toward an object or issue. • Centrality: How central or important the attitude is to one’s belief system. • Extremeness: The intensity or strength of the attitude (how strongly one feels). Quantity, however, is not a recognized property of attitude — it does not describe the nature or strength of an attitude but merely refers to an amount, which is unrelated to psychological measurement of attitudes. |
| 24 | Q24. Who has proposed two-step concept to describe the process of attitude change? 1. Mohsin 2. Heider 3. Janis 4. Triplett | The correct answer is Option 1. Mohsin S.M. Mohsin, an Indian psychologist, proposed the two-step concept to explain the process of attitude change. According to this model, attitude change occurs through two stages: 1. Step 1 – Acceptance of new information: The individual receives and understands persuasive communication or information. 2. Step 2 – Internalization and change: The person integrates the new information into their belief system, leading to an actual change in attitude. This concept emphasizes that attitude change is not immediate; it involves understanding first and acceptance later, distinguishing Mohsin’s model from other theories like Festinger’s cognitive dissonance or Heider’s balance theory. |
| 25 | Q25. Festinger and Carlsmith conducted a famous experiment in the field of social psychology. This experiment was related to: 1. Groupthink 2. Prejudice 3. Cognitive dissonance 4. Schema | The correct answer is Option 3. Cognitive dissonance Leon Festinger and James Carlsmith conducted a classic 1959 experiment demonstrating the concept of cognitive dissonance, which refers to the mental discomfort experienced when a person holds two or more inconsistent beliefs, attitudes, or behaviors. In their study, participants performed a boring task and were later asked to tell others it was interesting. Those paid $1 (insufficient justification) experienced more dissonance and changed their attitude to believe the task was enjoyable, compared to those paid $20. This experiment showed that people often change their attitudes to align with their actions to reduce internal psychological tension — a key idea in Festinger’s Cognitive Dissonance Theory. |
| 26 | Q26. Which one of the following strategies is not effective in dealing with prejudice? 1. Minimising opportunities for learning prejudices 2. Encouraging the tendency towards self-fulfilling prophecy among the victims of prejudice 3. Changing discriminatory attitudes 4. De-emphasising a narrow social identity based on the ingroup | The correct answer is Option 2. Encouraging the tendency towards self- fulfilling prophecy among the victims of prejudice A self-fulfilling prophecy occurs when people internalize negative expectations about themselves and behave in ways that confirm those expectations. Encouraging this tendency would reinforce prejudice rather than reduce it, making it ineffective in dealing with prejudice. On the other hand: • Minimising opportunities for learning prejudices prevents biased attitudes from developing. • Changing discriminatory attitudes promotes equality and social harmony. • De-emphasising narrow social identity encourages inclusivity and reduces “us vs. them” thinking. Hence, promoting self-fulfilling prophecy among victims worsens prejudice instead of helping overcome it. |
| 27 | Q27. Match List-I with List-II List-I List-II (A) Cohesiveness (I) Strengthening of group’s initial position as a result of group interaction and discussion (B) Status (II) Socially defined expectations that are expected to be fulfilled (C) Roles (III) Relative position given to group members by others
(D) Group polarisation (IV) Togetherness or mutual attraction among group members
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II) 2. (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I) 3. (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (III) 4. (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I) | The correct answer is Option 2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) • (A) Cohesiveness → (IV) Togetherness or mutual attraction among group members: Cohesiveness refers to the strength of the bond and sense of unity within a group. • (B) Status → (III) Relative position given to group members by others: Status represents the social standing or rank of an individual within the group. • (C) Roles → (II) Socially defined expectations that are expected to be fulfilled: Roles describe the functions or responsibilities individuals are expected to perform in the group. • (D) Group Polarisation → (I) Strengthening of group’s initial position as a result of group interaction and discussion: Group polarisation occurs when discussions within a group lead members to adopt more extreme positions than they initially held. Hence, the correct matching is: (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) |
| 28 | Q28. Arrange the following from the highest to lowest level of correlation in terms of IQ: (A) The correlation between siblings reared together (B) The correlation between identical twins reared together (C) The correlation between siblings reared apart (D) The correlation between identical twins reared in different environments (E) The correlation of fraternal twins reared together Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (E), (D), (C), (A), (B) 2. (C), (A), (E), (D), (B) 3. (B), (E), (D), (A), (C) 4. (B), (D), (E) (A), (C) | The correct answer is Option 4. (B), (D), (E), (A), (C) Studies on genetic and environmental influences on intelligence (IQ) show that IQ correlation depends on both genetic similarity and shared environment. The more genes two people share, the higher their IQ correlation — especially if they grow up together. Here’s the correct order from highest to lowest correlation: • (B) Identical twins reared together: Highest correlation (~0.85–0.90) because they share 100% genes and the same environment. • (D) Identical twins reared in different environments: High correlation (~0.70) due to identical genetics despite different environments. • (E) Fraternal twins reared together: Moderate correlation (~0.60) as they share about 50% genes and the same environment. • (A) Siblings reared together: Lower correlation (~0.45–0.50) with 50% shared genes and same environment. • (C) Siblings reared apart: Lowest correlation (~0.25) because they share only genes, not the environment. Thus, the sequence is: (B) → (D) → (E) → (A) → (C) |
| 29 | Q29. Anxiety disorders have been linked to low activity of the ___________________ neurotransmitter. 1. Gamma Aminobutyric Acid 2. Serotonin 3. Dopamine 4. Cortisol | The correct answer is Option 1. Gamma Aminobutyric Acid Gamma Aminobutyric Acid (GABA) is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain that helps calm neural activity and reduce anxiety. Low levels or reduced functioning of GABA lead to increased neural excitation, resulting in heightened anxiety, tension, and nervousness. Medications for anxiety, such as benzodiazepines, work by enhancing the effects of GABA to produce a calming effect. Hence, low GABA activity is strongly associated with anxiety disorders. |
| 30 | Q30. Which model emphasises that 'psychological disorders are the result of learning maladaptive ways of behaving'?
1. Psychodynamic model 2. Behavioural model 3. Cognitive model 4. Humanistic-existential model | The correct answer is Option 2. Behavioural model The Behavioural model explains that psychological disorders arise from learning maladaptive or faulty behaviours through processes like classical conditioning, operant conditioning, or observational learning. According to this model, abnormal behaviour is learned just like normal behaviour — through reinforcement or imitation — and can therefore be unlearned or modified using behavioural techniques such as systematic desensitisation, reinforcement, or extinction. In contrast, • The Psychodynamic model focuses on unconscious conflicts, • The Cognitive model on faulty thinking, and • The Humanistic-existential model on issues of self and personal growth. |
| 31 | Q31. Pari, who is eight years old now, continues to cling to her parents and refuses to go to school without them. She screams, throws tantrums and feels fearful when she is left alone in a room by herself. These are characteristic features of: 1. Panic disorder 2. Phobia 3. Separation anxiety disorder 4. Generalised anxiety disorder | The correct answer is Option 3. Separation anxiety disorder Separation Anxiety Disorder is common in children and involves excessive fear or anxiety when separated from home or attachment figures, such as parents. The child may cry, cling, or throw tantrums when separation is anticipated or occurs. In Pari’s case, her refusal to go to school without her parents, fear of being alone, and emotional distress when separated clearly indicate separation anxiety, not a general or specific fear like in phobia or generalized anxiety disorder. |
| 32 | Q32. Archit works in an office where he feels that he is being spied on. He is sure that people deliberately assign him more work as they want him thrown out on grounds of incompetence. Archit also feels that people tamper with his computer and call him from multiple numbers to attack his personal space. What kind of delusion is Archit suffering from? 1. Delusion of grandeur 2. Delusion of reference 3. Delusion of control 4. Delusion of persecution | The correct answer is Option 4. Delusion of persecution A delusion of persecution occurs when a person believes that others are trying to harm, spy on, or conspire against them, even though there is no real evidence. In Archit’s case, he thinks people are assigning him extra work, tampering with his computer, and calling him to invade his personal space—all signs of a persecutory belief. Such delusions are commonly seen in disorders like Paranoid Schizophrenia, where individuals misinterpret ordinary events as targeted attacks against them. |
| 33 | Q33. Arrange different levels of Intellectual Disability in order of higher to lower level of dysfunctioning: (A) Mild (B) Moderate (C) Severe
(D) Profound Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A), (B), (C), (D) 2. (C), (B), (D), (A) 3. (B), (A), (C), (D) 4. (D), (C), (B), (A) | The correct answer is Option 4. (D), (C), (B), (A) The levels of Intellectual Disability (ID) are categorized based on the severity of dysfunctioning (from most severe to least severe): • Profound: Individuals show very limited functioning in all areas; they require complete support in daily activities. • Severe: There is marked developmental delay; individuals can learn basic self-care and simple communication skills. • Moderate: Individuals can perform simple tasks under supervision and may achieve some independence in daily life. • Mild: They show slight intellectual impairment, can achieve basic academic skills, and often live semi-independently. Hence, the order from higher to lower level of dysfunctioning is: Profound → Severe → Moderate → Mild, which corresponds to (D), (C), (B), (A). |
| 34 | Q34. Match List-I with List-II List-I List-II Disorder Symptom (s) (A) Schizophrenia (I) Overly preoccupied with body-related symptoms (B) Bipolar and Related Disorders (II) Positive symptoms (C) Separation Anxiety Disorder (III) Fear (D) Somatic Symptom Disorder (IV) Suicidal thoughts
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) 2. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) 3. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I) 4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) | The correct answer is Option 3. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I) • Schizophrenia → Positive symptoms (II): Schizophrenia involves positive symptoms like hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking — behaviors added to normal functioning. • Bipolar and Related Disorders → Suicidal thoughts (IV): Individuals with bipolar disorder may experience extreme mood swings, including depressive episodes that can lead to suicidal ideation. • Separation Anxiety Disorder → Fear (III): The main symptom of this disorder is excessive fear or anxiety about being separated from loved ones. • Somatic Symptom Disorder → Overly preoccupied with body-related symptoms (I): Here, the person becomes excessively concerned or anxious about physical symptoms that may or may not have a medical cause. |
| 35 | Q35. Which of the following is NOT a component of the therapeutic relationship? 1. Contractual nature of the relationship 2. Limited duration of the therapру 3. Trusting and confiding relationship 4. Peer counseling | The correct answer is Option 4. Peer counseling A therapeutic relationship is the professional bond between a therapist and client, based on trust, respect, and confidentiality. It includes elements such as: • Contractual nature (clear goals and roles) • Limited duration (it exists for the period of therapy) • Trusting and confiding relationship (essential for effective therapy) Peer counselling, however, refers to help provided by equals—like students helping fellow students—which is not a part of the professional therapeutic relationship between a trained counsellor and client. |
| 36 | Q36. In an upscale food delivery chain, the delivery persons are given badges for timely food delivery at the end of each month. Bonus is given annually in exchange for six such badges. The company has therefore been able to retain most of its emplovees and get better returns vear after year. Which behavioural technigue is being used to reinforce delivery personnel? 1. Negative reinforcement 2. Differential reinforcement 3. Modelling 4. Token economy | The correct answer is Option 4. Token economy A token economy is a behavioural technique in which individuals earn tokens or symbolic rewards (like badges, stars, or points) for displaying desired behaviours. These tokens can later be exchanged for a larger reward — in this case, a bonus for collecting six badges. This system encourages consistent good performance and strengthens positive behaviour through positive reinforcement. |
| 37 | Q37. What is the most appropriate goal of Logotherapy? 1. To unlearn faulty behaviour patterns 2. To facilitate the client to find the meaning of his/her being 3. Cognitive restructuring which in turn reduces anxiety 4. To increase an individual's self-awareness | The correct answer is Option 2. To facilitate the client to find the meaning of his/her being Logotherapy, developed by Viktor Frankl, focuses on helping individuals discover meaning and purpose in life, even amidst suffering or hardship. It is based on the belief that the primary human drive is not pleasure or power, but the search for meaning. By finding meaning in life, individuals can overcome feelings of emptiness, despair, or anxiety, leading to psychological well-being. |
| 38 | Q38. Aparna went to her college counsellor with her problem that was causing her sleepless nights. Later, she realized that the counsellor had shared the details with the staff of the college. Aparna's faith was completely shaken, and she resolved never to trust any counsellor. Which one of the following ethics has been breached by the counsellor? 1. Informed consent 2. Confidentiality of the client 3. Respect for human rights and dignity 4. Professional competence | The correct answer is Option 2. Confidentiality of the client The counsellor violated the ethical principle of confidentiality, which requires that all personal information shared by a client during counselling sessions must be kept private. Sharing Aparna’s problem with college staff without her permission breached her trust and the ethical duty of the counsellor to protect client privacy. Confidentiality is fundamental to maintaining a safe and trustworthy counselling relationship. |
| 39 | Q39. Match List-I with List-II List-I List-II (A) Emotional unburdening (I) Healing bond between therapist and client (B) Therapist variable (II) Expectation of improvement due to the treatment (C) Patient variable (III) Catharsis
(D) Therapeutic alliance (IV) Absence of unresolved emotional conflicts
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I) 2. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) 3. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) 4. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I) | The correct answer is Option 4. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I) • Emotional unburdening → Catharsis (III): Emotional unburdening refers to releasing pent-up feelings, which is known as catharsis. • Therapist variable → Expectation of improvement due to treatment (II): The therapist’s competence, empathy, and positive attitude can enhance the client’s expectation of improvement. • Patient variable → Absence of unresolved emotional conflicts (IV): A client’s readiness for therapy and emotional stability reflect patient- related factors. • Therapeutic alliance → Healing bond between therapist and client (I): This refers to the trust and collaborative relationship that helps in the healing process. |
| 40 | Q40. Aslam, a 12-year-old, gets too tired by evening to complete his homework. This is because he goes off for football training soon after school. The school counsellor advised Aslam to reduce his football training time and increase his weekend practice time. This way, Aslam will not be too tired and will be able to complete his homework. Identify the antecedent operation: 1. Not completing his homework 2. Playing football after school 3. Reduce his football training time on weekdays 4. Completing his homework happily Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:- The prisoners in the concentration camps in World War-II had lost faith in the future. Being in the camp, I felt disgusted with the state of affairs and I forced my thoughts to turn to another subject. "Suddenly, I saw myself standing on the platform of a well - lit, warm and pleasant lecture room. In front of me, the attentive audience were seated in comfortable upholstered seats. I saw myself giving a lecture on hope, optimism, and resilience under difficult circumstances." Suddenly, all that oppressed me stopped giving me pain and distress. This practice was so impactful that I could succeed in rising above the situation and the sufferings of the moment." | The correct answer is Option 2. Playing football after school An antecedent operation refers to an event or activity that occurs before a behavior and influences it. In this case, Aslam becomes too tired (which affects his ability to complete homework) because he plays football after school. This football practice happens before the problem behavior (not completing homework), making it the antecedent operation. |
| 41 | Q41. Which method has the writer used to rise above his sufferings in the concentration camp? 1. Cognitive Behavioural Techniques 2. Creative Visualisation 3. Biofeedback
4. Relaxation Techniques | The correct answer is Option 2. Creative Visualisation In the passage, the writer imagines himself standing in a pleasant lecture hall, speaking about hope and resilience. He mentally transports himself away from the painful reality of the concentration camp. This technique of using imagination to create a positive mental picture and reduce present suffering is known as Creative Visualisation. |
| 42 | Q42. The prisoners in the concentration camps were in a state of despair that caused them physical and mental 'wear and tear'. This state can best be described by which term? 1. Eustress 2. Strain 3. Distress 4. Burnout | The correct answer is Option 3. Distress The prisoners had lost hope, were suffering, and were emotionally and physically exhausted. This type of negative, overwhelming stress that causes harm to the mind and body is known as distress. • Eustress refers to positive stress. • Strain refers to the physical effect of stress. • Burnout happens due to prolonged workplace stress. Here, the prisoners' suffering clearly indicates distress. |
| 43 | Q43. Choose the correct sequence of the method used by the author as a stress management technique: (A) One must set a realistic goal. (B) Visualize when the mind is quiet, body is relaxed and eyes are closed. (C) This will enable the creative energy to turn an imagined scene into reality. (D) This reduces the risk of interference from unbidden thoughts. (E) This subjective experience will effectively reduce stress. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A), (C), (B), (E), (D) 2. (A). (B). (C), (D), (E) 3. (A), (D), (B), (C), (E) 4. (A), (B), (D), (C), (E) | The correct answer is Option 4. (A), (B), (D), (C), (E) The passage describes Creative Visualisation as a stress management technique. The logical order of steps is: • (A) First, set a realistic and meaningful goal to visualize. • (B) Then, relax the body and mind and visualize with closed eyes. • (D) Relaxation reduces unnecessary or distracting thoughts, ensuring a clear mental picture. • (C) This allows creative energy to transform imagination into a vivid experience. • (E) The positive subjective experience lowers stress and enhances hope. |
| 44 | Q44. Identify the correct fact/s related to the stress management technique used by the author in the passage. (A) Use of images and imagery to deal with stress. (B) The yogic method of meditation for refocusing of attention. (C) Procedure to monitor and reduce physiological aspects of stress by providing feedback. (D) Replacing negative and irrational thoughts with positive and rational ones.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A) and (B) only 2. (A) only 3. (B) only 4. (B) and (D) only | The correct answer is Option 2. (A) only In the passage, the author uses Creative Visualisation to cope with stress. This involves using mental images and imagination to create a positive scene - a method to mentally escape distressing realities and generate hope. • (A) Use of images and imagery to deal with stress → Correct, as it directly describes Creative Visualisation. • (B) The yogic method of meditation → ❌ Not mentioned in the passage. • (C) Biofeedback → ❌ Involves monitoring physiological responses, not mental imagery. • (D) Cognitive Behavioural Techniques → ❌ Involves replacing negative thoughts, which isn’t the method used here. |
| 45 | Q45. The survivors of World War-II who were prisoners in the concentration camps had the common personality trait which consists of 'the three Cs', i.e. commitment, control and challenges. These traits are referred to as: 1. Self-esteem 2. Hardiness 3. Assertiveness 4. Rational thinking Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:- Just as individuals compare themselves with others in terms of similarities and differences with respect to what they have and what others have, individuals also compare the group they belong to with groups of which they are not a member. It has been found that groups are more likely to take extreme decisions than individuals alone. Suppose there is an employee who has been caught taking a bribe or engaging in some other unethical act. His/her colleagues are asked to decide what punishment he/she should be given. They may let him/her go scot-free or decide to terminate his/her services instead of imposing a punishment which may commensurate with the unethical act he/she had engaged in. Whatever the initial position in the group, this position becomes much stronger as a result of discussions and interaction in the group. | The correct answer is Option 2. Hardiness The three traits - Commitment, Control, and Challenge - are the core components of Hardiness, a personality characteristic identified by psychologist Suzanne Kobasa. People high in hardiness view stressful situations as opportunities for growth rather than threats. This helps them remain resilient, optimistic, and mentally strong even in extreme adversity, such as the experiences of World War-II survivors. |
| 46 | Q46. The strengthening of the group's initial position as a result of group discussion and interaction is referred to as: 1. Group polarisation 2. Groupthink 3. Obedience 4. Social loafing | The correct answer is Option 1. Group polarisation Group polarisation refers to the tendency of group members to make more extreme decisions after group discussions than they would have made individually. When people with similar opinions discuss an issue, their views become stronger and more extreme — either more positive or more negative. In the passage, the group of employees takes an extreme decision after discussion, which clearly illustrates group polarisation. |
| 47 | Q47. When you find others also favouring your opinion against the employee, who was caught taking a bribe, you feel that your view is being validated by the public. This phenomenon is called: 1. Cohesiveness 2. Autokinetic effect 3. Compliance 4. Bandwagon effect | The correct answer is Option 4. Bandwagon effect The Bandwagon effect refers to the tendency of people to adopt certain beliefs, attitudes, or behaviours simply because others around them do so. When an individual perceives that many others share their opinion, they feel validated and become more confident in their stance. In this case, when others in the group also favour punishing the employee, you feel your opinion is socially supported, which strengthens your belief - a classic example of the bandwagon effect. |
| 48 | Q48. Identify the correct statements in reference to the influence of group on individual behavior: (A) Individuals are more likely to take extreme decisions than the group. (B) When you find others favouring your opinion, you feel that your view is being validated by the public (C) When you find people having similar views, you are likely to perceive them as in-group and as a consequence your views get strengthened. (D) Groups are more likely to take extreme decisions than individuals alone. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A) and (B) only 2. (B), (C) and (D) only 3. (A) and (C) only 4. (A), (B) and (C) only | The correct answer is Option 2. (B), (C) and (D) only • (A) is incorrect because individuals alone are less likely to take extreme decisions — groups tend to become more extreme after discussion (group polarisation). • (B) is correct — when others share your opinion, you feel validated, which reflects the bandwagon effect. • (C) is correct — when you identify people with similar views, you see them as your in-group, and this strengthens your beliefs due to shared identity. • (D) is correct — groups tend to take more extreme decisions than individuals due to group discussion and mutual reinforcement. Hence, the correct combination is (B), (C), and (D) |
| 49 | Q49. When you find others having views similar to yours, you are likely to perceive them as: 1. Ingroup 2. Outgroup 3. Non-conformists 4. Friends | The correct answer is Option 1. Ingroup An ingroup refers to a group of people with whom an individual identifies or feels a sense of belonging. When you find others sharing similar opinions, beliefs, or values, you naturally perceive them as part of your ingroup. This perception strengthens feelings of unity, trust, and agreement, while those who hold opposing views are seen as part of the outgroup. |
| 50 | Q50. Match List-I with List-II List-I List-II
(A) Members are viewed differently and are often perceived negatively (I) Group polarisation (B) The strengthening of the group's initial position as a result of group interaction and discussion (II) Cohesiveness (C) Appearance of consensus or unanimous agreement within a group (III) Outgroup (D) Team spirit or ‘we’ feeling or a sense of belongingness to the group (IV) Groupthink
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) 2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) 3. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) 4. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) | The correct answer is Option 4. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) • (A) Members are viewed differently and are often perceived negatively → (III) Outgroup: Members of the outgroup are usually seen as different or inferior by the ingroup, often leading to bias or prejudice. • (B) The strengthening of the group’s initial position as a result of group interaction → (I) Group polarisation: This refers to how discussions within a group lead to more extreme opinions or decisions. • (C) Appearance of consensus or unanimous agreement within a group → (IV) Groupthink: Groupthink occurs when the desire for harmony or conformity leads to suppression of dissenting opinions and an illusion of agreement. • (D) Team spirit or ‘we’ feeling or sense of belonging → (II) Cohesiveness: Cohesiveness describes the mutual attraction and unity among group members. Thus, the correct matching is: (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) |